Talk:Treaty of Villafáfila

Not part of the Crown of Castile

The Indies were not part of the Crown of Castile, they were personal property of the kings of Castile. This was explained to Santos30 in the Spanish wikipedia, with quotes of the parts that he had misinterpretated, but he is still introducing this misconception in this article. --Enric Naval (talk) 02:28, 22 November 2012 (UTC)

Even after 1520, they were incorporated as an "annex", as a kingdom that was under control of other kingdom. But they quickly became independent from Castilian laws, the Council of Indies was created in 1524, and since 1614 it had to sanction any Castilian law before it could be applied in the Indies, see pages 171-175 and pages 31-33. From this last reference, see:

(Spanish) "A finales del sigle XVII, cuando ha madurado la concepción sobre la personalidad de las Indias, se habla de ellas corrientemente como reinos de Indias, que es la expresión más habitual que se halla en la Recopilación de Leyes de los Reinos de Indias - sin perjuicio de otras-. Desde comienzos del siglo XVI los reyes se habían titulado reyes de España e Indias, lo que aparece resumido en las monedas: Hispaniarum et Indiarum rex."

(English translation) "At the end of century XVII, when the conception of the personality of the Indies has matured, it talked about them usually as kingdoms of Indies, which is the most natural expression that is found in the Recompilation of Laws of the Kingdoms of Indies - without harm of others-. Since the early century XVI the kings had titled themselves kings of Spain and Indies, which is summed up in the coins: Hispaniarum et Indiarum rex."

--Enric Naval (talk) 03:45, 22 November 2012 (UTC)

• The same talk of Spanish Empire--Santos30 (talk) 07:26, 23 November 2012 (UTC)

• Don't revert my sourced changes. Don't make asuumptions from sources that talk about something eles. Find sources that talk directly about the situation of the Lordship of the Indies during the relevant period, and cite them when changing the article. --Enric Naval (talk) 12:58, 24 November 2012 (UTC)

• Directly the sources talk about the territory and the kings. The situation of the Lordship is the absolute power of King Ferndinand the Catholic. Joanna and Carlos, as heirs, are both under laws of Castile. They not have absolute power as Catholic kings. But, about territory, the donation of the Pope is only for heirs of Castilian throne. Never Aragon or Catalonia. see here

--Santos30 (talk) 15:52, 24 November 2012 (UTC)

1519 or 1520?

One or two books say that Charles V made the declaration in 1519, but they don't give details and they deal with other topics. But other books cite 1520 and cite text from 1520 declaration, and they dedicate one or more pages to the topic. 1519 is the date for the creation of Consejo de Indias, this might have caused a confusion.

I think that 1519 might be a mistake, I have left only the reference to 1520. --Enric Naval (talk) 11:51, 11 March 2013 (UTC)